Sorry, not totally clear as to what your post is saying. I believe you are assuming that S&L continues to sell shares and reducing their exposure, so that their ownership is acutually much less than what is allowed. Pls correct me if wrong.

That may well be the case, but you still leave my question unanswered. And again, I preface the question with the assumption that the pr is what I described it to be in my last post. If that assumption is correct, then why has JT chosen this point in time to eliminate the warrant overhang? Anyone? Opty