"Since when does a RS increase shareholder value? Please explain. "
No, I'm not saying the R/S is increasing the value - what I meant is the following:
The company sets a goal (target? aim?...;-)) of $ 400million for RG to increase the market capitalization of PTSC in order to let his options vest.
With the current float of O/S of about 390 mio (let's say 400mio) this would equal a shareprice of $1.
But a second goal for RG is to bring PTSC to a different exchange, where - as we know - the shareprice has to be at $5.
Now how does the shareprice of the demanded 400mio market cap equaling $1 fit with the demanded step to a different exchange with a shareprice requirement of $5?
First the company's shareprice rises to $1 (what we all hope should be "no" problem with the positive results of the USPTO) - which would be described as the merit of RG -
...and the next logical step to achieve the next step would then do a R/S.
Otherwise the contract had to have read "2 billions" and not "400 millions" -IMO.
Hope, I could explain it a little better...GLTY
