First, get your minds out of the gutter! LOL
Now, since I've decided to post a little today, let me toss this one out there....
Assuming that my "it only takes one" mindset is sensible, with a revalidation of the '148 or '336 (or both), wouldn't we be swinging a much bigger stick when threatening an injunction against a known infringer? Would a court not be more compelled to comply with a request for injunction?
Just a thought...
SGE