If we are to believe that a NDA was in place, how are we to ever find out what was actually done or not done on behalf of the shareholder? What's the purpose in continuing this line of questioning?

For the simple reason of hypocrisy.

Why is it perfectly acceptable for one to use an NDA in refusing to be held accountable yet at the same time disparaging the use of an NDA by others?

Please note that I have no problems with an NDA per se as it is standard business practice in the IP field.

E&OE

Be well