As RG and others have explained in the past..product infringement or the extent to which a particular product of a company has infinged is hard to discern. The mere fact that we settled / negotiated with company X for a certain number of dollars does not mean that we can extrapolate infringement for company Y based on their revenues..

My concern is that people are jumping to conculsions about how much a particular company may have paid versus what another company has paid in the past. (i.e. paid too little). How do we know that they paid too little if we do not know the extent to which their product infringed on the IP). A company with large revenues does not translate into larger infringement license fees (although sales #s probably are greater).

My guess is that we reverse engineer the product and run through some sort of infringment model based on sales of the product that infringed on the patents. These no doubt are taken on a case by case basis..no two products are exaclty alike..and I would guess that no two infringement cases are exactly alike either.

My two thoughts..