They are considered a single entity in PDS in that 50% of net revenues went to them, with 50% to PTSC. Moore was employed by TPL during the period in question. Employers are required to withhold 35% of income after allowances and pay it directly to the IRS.

In 2008, any income over and above $397,000(from memory)is taxed at 35%. Is it a coincidence that the claimed shortfall approximates the 35% withholding tax deduction for the percentage of $260million claimed by Moore?

Please note that Moore states it is TPL that owes him the money, and not PDS.

Why does it always appear easier to create FUD than look for a reasonable answer based on available facts? If it's not the BoD, then it must be TPL, mantra?

Be well