Re: Tuesday's Question Of The Day
in response to
by
posted on
Aug 25, 2010 01:54PM
<Don't you really want to know why the BoD loaned DL/TPL $1 million unsecured?>
Why was the first loan secured and the second not? Isn't that the better question? Are you saying that the rationale for securing the first loan simply was forgoten when the need arose for the second? Wouldn't that be terribly hard to do?
Unless there are other choices not mentioned, it would seem that B is the most logical.
B. It was a deliberate trick. The BoD knew DL/TPL would not repay and they could use that to gain control of the MMP.
Opty