If the master agreement spelled out how licensing money would be allocated between TPL, Moore and PTSC and

If the license agreements were actually between TPL/Alliacense and the infringers and

If it is found that TPL never owned the patents, wouldn't that in fact void all the license agreements?

Of course if the license agreements also included Moore and PTSC as owners, then I guess it's all good.

Just some thoughts...not sure how this would play out but I welcome any discussion on the subject.

Laurie