"A Securities Class Action is a form of litigation filed on behalf of a group of people (or “Class”) who purchased or acquired a particular stock or security of a publicly traded company during a period of artificial market price inflation."

So, would those who bought during the run up when we believe Swartz was involved qualify as members of such a class? I would think that the mere of filing such a claim would make a few people a little nervous, given that it would lead to depositions relating to BOD and third party actions during said (to be defined) period.

Who could define the period start and end (i.e. price starts to move up 'artificially' to price plummets after a period at or near its peak)?

I wonder if a Class Action can also be initiated based on the the price being artificially deflated because of (a) failure to aggressively market the MMP portfolio and (b) failure to provide information which shareholdersand/or prospective shareholders may be reasonably expected to receive on a timely and regular basis?