I feel these might be dumb questions but please don't give me dumb answers!

1 - If Judge Ware delivers the Markman ruling before June 25, is the judge of the subsequent trial (assuming there is no settlement) obliged to stick verbatim to Judge Ware's interpretation, or could he or she start over?

2 - Could Judge Ware not rule before his retirement? What then? Is that a start-over?

Let's all wait for RONRAN's reply so we can keep down the volume of emails to skip....