``The liability I allude to is LG`s outstanding action against the company. That ``bad will`` and cash involved will have to be accounted for in any potential buyout/merger.``

I didn`t make myself clear inmy first post - could it be his removal was a condition set upon PTSC, in order for a future ocurrence to happen?

And secondly, could the arbitration have been an anticipated reaction that was factored into the decision making process (as an acceptable risk) before his release?

Yes, I`m leading in my questions.

Regards