It would be impossible to manufacture the finished goods were it not for the patented technology. I humbly suggest that it is immaterial whether 1 or 100 chips are used in the process, but the fact that the patented technology is used. I would further suggest that royalties are therefore paid on the value of finished goods, rather than on a per chip basis.

Does the fact that Intel/AMD have paid for the right to build chips preclude the possibility that manufacturers using said chips, in their respective products, are further liable?

Comments welcome.

Be well