in a legal sense. Could anyone explain to me why a subsequent addendum to a contract that explicitly alters, changes, deletes, supercedes, a prior addendum not be then considered the operating force, in the contract????

I know the Judge ruled the 2002 NDA did not supercede the original 2002 agreement but that later NDA WAS AGREED TO AND SIGNED BY BOTH PARTIES as to the original agreement, superceding the original before BOW ever entered the picture.

In contractual terms this is a bona fide legal contract. But legally it seems to be something different. Could someone explain this to a legally deprived, very interested person??