I think for this to make sense, you need to look at the total cost of your investment vs the total current market value of your investment. The $/share pre-splits is irrelevant. Look at your total cost / current # of shares held. That's your cost/share (obviously, you don't need me to tell you that). And compare to today's price. The splits, reverse splits, etc. had absolutely no impact on the value of your holdings. You're in the hole by a big amount no matter what. The market value of the shares adjusted automatically at the time of the splits, so the difference between your aggregate cost and aggregate market value at that time would not have changed one bit (at least not because of the splits).

Where are you coming up with $0.22/share? Are you saying that's what today's price would be if not for the reverse split? Was it a 5:1 or 4:1 split? You said your 20,000 shares ended up at 5,000 shares (that would be a 4:1), but then said the value of each share was then worth $0.20 x 5 = $1.00. If a 4:1 split, then it would have been worth 80 cents ($0.20 x 4). If it was a 5:1 split, then your 20,000 shares would be 4,000 shares. The 22 cents would imply a 5:1 split.

Don't you love math?

Anyway, back to my rock ...