<At first I was going to mention I wish we knew what we got in return for waiving potential suit for '148/'584 infringement. But I think the above statement suggests the patents were amended sufficient to negate infringement prior to the amendments.>

We all know that the amendment to the 584 negates prior infringement.

Could you let us know what change(s) were made to the 148 that put it in a similar condition? I assume there is some basis for the statement.

Opty