Guess I don't quite understand the logic of the drafting of the 23 page protective order in the first place and establishing an Oct 1 deadline to notify the court. It seems like it may have been necessary in order to execute certain requirements by Sakar. The devil is in the details. It does impose a deadline doesn't it? Why? Almost seems like it imposes a settlement by that date in order for the Sakar transaction to proceed. Don't have any background on how these things work, but this notion seems logical to me. Anyone else have some thoughts?

Larry