Since the one time payment agreement is confidential, zero details, but; is it not reasonable to assume that the fee included projected sales based on past history to cover the length of the patents involved for the current and future product line?
In other words, why would DM/EDIG take a fee for past product infringement and cut off all responsibilty past, hypothetically 2/28/11? With 3 years or so left, would one not think the license fee compensates for the remaining future AND the past?
Why would DM/EDIG say, "thanks for the check...you can use it free now, as we don't care about future sales."
Makes no sense IMO.
