Re: The 336 merged reexam decision
in response to
by
posted on
Jun 23, 2008 01:16PM
Yes, they know what prior art is mentioned, but have not idea whether any of it will be the cause for a rejection. Why assume the need for an ammendment if none is needed? Wouldn't the patent owner be indicating where he thought a weakness was by acting first? Appreciate your thoughts. Thanks Opty