Was going to say I'm glad to help you grasp the difference between imply and infer but then I read this: "I did not imply that Client A may be changing to a lease situation.  Nor did you infer it as I would have had to imply it for that to happen."  Not true, the second one doesn't need the first to happen.  As far as my inference goes, all you have to do is read stock board posts that were placed after the NR to see that there's a landslide of posters who made the same inference that I did.  And nobody who knows me would call me pedantic.  It was a one-time accusation I made of myself, absent of hubris.

Thanks for clarifying the two-party/three-party buy/lease benefit.