<Maybe I'm not being clear, but the question is, why is more than $8M in working capital needed, much less "subtantially" more? >

In order to guarantee that sufficient cash is in place to settle up?

If one believes that TPL is in financial difficulty or may have other leins placed on future revs by other claimants, PTSC may have made such request to the court. And there is nothing unusual about it since the number is within the allowed capital range.

I'm not sure they know what future expenses might be, and the agreement allows for adjusting as we go. Doing it up front now as part of settlement negotiations means something different to me. But to each his own.

Opty